How does Kant feel about abortion?
Does this depend on when a person becomes a rational agent- or does it depend on whether there's a possibility of capability of rational agency?
Furthermore, are you allowed to abort if the baby is the product of rape and you were the victim? Doesn't Kant say that if someone is acting irrationally, and treating you as a means rather than an end in yourself, then you don't need to obey categorical imperative?
I find this issue in relation to Kantian ethics extremely confusing. Clarification anybody?